Let $R$ be a ring, $I,J$ ideals such that $I+J=R$. The Chinese Remainder Theorem claims that if $I\cap J=(0)$, then $R\simeq R/I\times R/J$.
I remember seeing a version of the theorem for the case of principal ideals $I=(p),\ J=(q)$ which assumes instead of the comaximality of $I$ and $J$ (and probably of the condition on the intersection) that $I$ and $J$) that $p$ and $q$ are coprime elements in $R$. (I'm not sure that my statement is precise.) This version is easier to use sometimes, e.g. it looks easier for me to prove that $x-1$ and $x^2+x+1$ are coprime than to prove that $(x-1)+(x^2+x+1)=(1)$ in $\mathbb R[x]$.
So my questions are: whether my statement is precise, and how does it follow from the general Chinese remainder theorem?
The abstract Chinese remainder theorem that I know is this (stated for two ideals):