In order to prove $$ \int_x^1 \frac{dt}{1+t^2}=\int_1^\frac{1}{x}\frac{dt}{1+t^2}$$ I showed that $$ \int_x^1 \frac{dt}{1+t^2}- \int_1^\frac{1}{x} \frac{dt}{1+t^2}=\frac{\pi}{4}-arctan(x)-[arctan\bigg(\frac{1}{x}\bigg)-\frac{\pi}{4}]$$
Since $arctan(x)+arctan(\frac{1}{x})=\frac{\pi}{2}$, then it follows that $ \int_x^1 \frac{dt}{1+t^2}- \int_1^\frac{1}{x} \frac{dt}{1+t^2}=0$. However, I feel this is kind of proof only "shows" but doesn't really "explains".
Is there another way to prove this? The simpler the better!
Thanks in advance.
Let $I=\int_x^1 \frac{dt}{1+t^2}$. Make the substitution $t\to \frac{1}{t}$ and we get
$$I= \int_{\frac{1}{x}}^1 \frac{d(1/t)}{1+(1/t)^2}$$ $$=- \int_{\frac{1}{x}}^1 \frac{dt}{t^2(1+(1/t)^2)}$$ $$=- \int_{\frac{1}{x}}^1 \frac{dt}{(t^2+1)}$$ $$=\int_1^{\frac{1}{x}} \frac{dt}{(t^2+1)}$$