Adapted from Wikipedia:
"Set $S$ is totally ordered under $\le$" means:
$x,y \in S \implies ((x \le y \wedge y \le x) \implies x=y)$ (antisymmetry)
and
$x,y,z \in S \implies ((x \le y \wedge y \le z) \implies x \le z)$ (transitivity)
and
$x,y \in S \implies (x \le y \vee y \le x)$ (totality)
I'm trying to understand it independently of the $=$ relation. Is there another way to state antisymmetry? Does the meaning of "total order" remain equivalent if antisymmetry is changed to the following?
$x \in S \implies ((x \le y \wedge y \le x) \implies y \in S)$
EDIT: as comments/answers have pointed out, that removes meaning since $x \le y$ is only meaningful if $x,y \in S$. So the question becomes "Is there a way to state antisymmetry that doesn't use $=$?"
EDIT: I think I was going for this:
$x,y \in S \implies ((x \le y \wedge y \le x) \implies$ after removing either of them from $S$, the other $\notin S)$.
In other words:
$x,y \in S \implies ((x \le y \wedge y \le x) \implies (S' \subset S \implies (x \in S' \iff y \in S')))$
$x,y \in S \implies ((x \le y \wedge y \le x) \implies (S' \subset S \implies (x \in S' \iff y \in S')))$