The first (trigonometric) integral gives 0, because the integrand in the interval (0, 1) is antisym- metric about the point 1/2.
What does this exactly mean for the following equation?
The first (trigonometric) integral gives 0, because the integrand in the interval (0, 1) is antisym- metric about the point 1/2.
What does this exactly mean for the following equation?
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$$I = \int_0^1 \pi\sin^2(\pi t)\cos(\pi t)dt$$
Using the substitution $t = 1-u$, we have
$$I = \int_0^1\pi \sin^2(\pi-\pi u)\cos(\pi-\pi u)du = -I$$
$$\implies 2I=0 \implies I=0$$