If $\{a_k\}$ is a sequence, I have shown if the three subsequences $\{a_{2k}\}, \{a_{2k+1}\}, \{a_{3k}\}$ all converge, then the sequence converges.
I am asked whether the sequence converges if only two of them converge. Any help will be appreciated.
I first show the limits are the same. Let us assume $\lim a_{2k} = a, \lim a_{2k+1}=b, \lim a_{3k}=c$. Then $\lim_{6k} = a = c$ and $\lim_{6k +3} = b = c$. Now pick any $\varepsilon > 0$, there are $N_1, N_2$ such that \begin{align*} &|a_{2k} -a | < \varepsilon, \text{ if }2k \ge N_1, \\ &|a_{2k+1} -a | < \varepsilon, \text{ if }2k+1 \ge N_2. \end{align*} So if $n \ge \max(N_1, N_2)$, we get $|a_n -a| < \varepsilon$.
The answer is no. I remember I learned the example from my analysis class.
Take $a_n = (-1)^n$, then $\lim_{k \to \infty} a_{2k} =1$ and $\lim_{k \to \infty} a_{2k-1} = -1$.
If $$a_k = \begin{cases} 0, & \text{ if } n=2^k, k = 0, 1, \dots , \\ 1 & \text{ otherwise. } \end{cases}$$ Then $\lim_{k \to \infty} a_{3k} = 1 $ and $\lim_{k \to \infty} a_{2k+1} = 1$ but $\lim_{k \to \infty} a_{2k}$ does not exist.
Finally, if $$ a_n = \begin{cases} 0 & \text{ if $n$ is prime }, \\ 1 & \text{ if $n$ is not prime.} \end{cases}$$ We can check $\lim_{k \to \infty} a_{3k} = 1$ and $\lim_{k \to \infty} a_{2k} =1 $ but $\lim_{k \to \infty} a_{2k+1}$ does not exist.