In Oksendal's and Xuerong Mao's books when defining the integral wrt the Brownian motion they use the following lemma:
Let $\mathscr{M}^{2}([a,b];\mathbb{R})$ be the space of all real-valued measurable {$\mathcal{F}_{t}\}$-adapted process $f=\{f(t)\}_{a\leq t\leq b}$ such that $E\int_{a}^{b}|f(t)|^{2}dt<\infty.$ Then, for any $f\in\mathscr{M}^{2}([a,b];\mathbb{R}),$ there exists a sequence $\{g_{n}\}$ of simple processes such that $$\lim_{n\rightarrow\infty}E\int_{a}^{b}|f(t)-g_{n}(t)|^{2}dt=0.$$ They prove the lemma in three steps:
Step 1: they prove that for every $f \in \mathscr{M}^{2}([a,b];\mathbb{R})$ exists a sequence of bounded processes $\{\varphi_{n}\}$ in $\mathscr{M}^{2}([a,b];\mathbb{R})$ such that $$\lim_{n\rightarrow\infty}E\int_{a}^{b}|f(t)-\ \varphi_{n}(t)|^{2}dt=0.$$ Step 2: For every bounded $\varphi \in \mathscr{M}^{2}([a,b];\mathbb{R})$ exists a sequence of bounded continuous processes $\{\phi_{n}\}$ in $\mathscr{M}^{2}([a,b];\mathbb{R})$ such that $$\lim_{n\rightarrow\infty}E\int_{a}^{b}|\varphi(t)-\ \phi_{n}(t)|^{2}dt=0.$$ Step 3: For every bounded and continuous $\phi \in \mathscr{M}^{2}([a,b];\mathbb{R})$ exists a sequence of simple processes $\{g_{n}\}$ in $\mathscr{M}^{2}([a,b];\mathbb{R})$ such that $$\lim_{n\rightarrow\infty}E\int_{a}^{b}|\phi(t)-\ g_{n}(t)|^{2}dt=0.$$
Then, they conclude that the proof is finished. I guess that to go from these three steps to the final result is obvious but I can't see it. What is the mathematical argument that allow us to conclude the proof of the lemma from the three steps?
To be more specific, given a $\epsilon>0$, I need to find a $n_{0}\in \mathbb{N}$ such that $n\geq n_{0}$ implies $$E\int_{a}^{b}|f(t)-g_{n}(t)|^{2}dt<\epsilon.$$ How can I find '$n_{0}$' using steps: 1,2 and 3?
Hint: $|f(t)-g_n(t)|^2 = |(f(t)-\varphi_n(t)) + (\varphi_n(t)-\phi_n(t)) + (\phi_n(t)-g_n(t))|^2 \leq |f(t)-\varphi_n(t)|^2 + |\varphi_n(t)-\phi_n(t)|^2 + |\phi_n(t)-g_n(t))|^2$.