I was wondering how to approximate $\sqrt{1+\frac{1}{n}}$ by $1+\frac{1}{2n}$ without using Laurent Series.
The reason why I ask was because using this approximation, we can show that the sequence $(\cos(\pi{\sqrt{n^{2}-n}})_{n=1}^{\infty}$ converges to $0$. This done using a mean-value theorem or Lipschitz (bounded derivative) argument where
$$ |\cos(\pi{\sqrt{n^{2}-n}})-\cos(\pi{n}+\pi/2)|=|\cos(\pi{\sqrt{n^{2}-n}})| \leq \pi|\sqrt{n^{2}-n}-n-1/2| = \pi |\frac{-1/4}{n^{2}-n+n+1/2}| $$
I looked up $\sqrt{1+\frac{1}{n}}$ and saw that this approximation can be obtained using Laurent series at $x=\infty$. I am not familiar with Laurent series since I have not had any complex analysis yet, but I was wondering if there was another naive way to see this?
This requires nothing more than just the definition of a derivative. The function $f(x)=\sqrt{1+x}$ has derivative $f'(x)=\frac{1}{2\sqrt{1+x}}$ for $x\geq 0$. By the fundamental definition of derivatives:
$$f(x)-f(0)=f'(0)x+\epsilon(x),$$
where $\lim_{x\rightarrow 0^+}\epsilon(x)/x=0$ and $\lim_{x\rightarrow 0^+} \epsilon(x)=0$. If you're unfamiliar with this fact, divide both sides by $x$ and take the limit, invoking the definition of the derivative on the left side. To avoid confusion, it's actually that $\epsilon(x):=f(x)-f(0)-f'(0)$, which is a defines $\epsilon(x)$. It follows that:
$$f(x)=1+\frac{x}{2}+\epsilon(x).$$
Now plug in $x=1/n$ and observe that $\epsilon(1/n)/(1/n)$ is going to zero, which means that $\epsilon(1/n)$ must be considerably smaller than $(1/n)$ as $n$ gets larger. It follows that:
$$\sqrt{1+1/n}=1+2/n+(\mbox{something much smaller than }1/n),$$
an approximation which will tend to get better as $n$ gets larger.