Given $A\approx B$ and $B=C$.
Isn't it incorrect for some textbooks to write them together like $A\approx B=C$ rather than $A\approx B\approx C$?
Because
$A$
$\approx B$
$=C$
is essentially saying $A=C$ if we cut the middle-man, which is false!
Another example:
$1$
$=0.5+0.5$
$=2-1$
$=1$
Cut out the middle derivations and we get $1=1$ which is true.
No, the textbooks are correct.
Note that the combined statement $A≈B=C$ means $A≈B$ and $B=C$ which is what you'd like to claim.
On the other hand $A≈B≈C$ means $A≈B$ and $B≈C$ which is not what you'd like to claim because it does not imply the equality of $B$ and $C$ as it was intended.