Is this approximation true? If so, why? $$\frac{1+x}{1+y}\approx 1+x -y$$
I think it has something to do with $x$ and $y$ being close to zero, so that the ratio of the two is approximately equal to zero, and therefore cancels out.
In advance thanks!
Is this approximation true? If so, why? $$\frac{1+x}{1+y}\approx 1+x -y$$
I think it has something to do with $x$ and $y$ being close to zero, so that the ratio of the two is approximately equal to zero, and therefore cancels out.
In advance thanks!
$$f(x,y) = \frac{1+x}{1+y}$$
Let's try to derive the 1st order Taylor expansion around $0$ of $f$;
$$f(x,y) \approx f(0,0) + f_x(0,0)x + f_y(0,0) y = 1 + x - y$$
where
$$f_x(x,y) = \frac{\partial f}{\partial x} = \frac{1}{1+y} \Rightarrow f_x(0,0) = 1$$
and
$$f_y(x,y) = \frac{\partial f}{\partial y} = -\frac{1+x}{(1+y)^2} \Rightarrow f_y(0,0) = -1$$
So, for $x$ and $y$ sufficiently small, this approximation is good.