I am stuck on an old exam problem where they ask to prove that a permutation of shape $\frac{L!}{(L-N)!}$ is roughly equal to $L^N$.
I know that to start, the equation has to be approximated using Stirling approximation $$\ln(N!)=N*\ln(N)-N)$$ resulting in $$L^L\cdot\exp(-N)*(L-N)^{(L-N)}.$$ We also know that $L>>N$. However, I don't see how this helps me get to the final result.
If somebody could give a hint, that would be appreciated.
Thanks in advance!
$$\frac{L!}{(L-N)!}=L(L-1)(L-2) \cdots (L-(N-1))=$$
$$=L.L(1-\tfrac1L).L(1-\tfrac2L). \cdots L(1-\tfrac{N-1}{L})=$$
$$=L^N(1-\tfrac1L)(1-\tfrac2L) \cdots (1-\tfrac{N-1}{L})=$$
$$\approx L^N$$
because all factors between parentheses are close to $1$ due to property $L >> N$.