I'm reading a paper and can't wrap my head around the following approximation:
$f(x) = \frac{x+cx^2}{1+cx^2}$ $,$ $0 \le x \le 1$
Assuming that $c$ is small, $(c << 1)$, the following approximation is done
$f(x) \approx x + cx^2(1-x)$
So how is this approximation done and where do the -$cx^3$ term come from?
I think they'll be using the binomial theorem,
$$(1 + cx^2)^{-1} = 1 - cx^2$$
Then after ignoring the $c^2 x^4$ term, as $c$ is small, we get the result.