This question has two parts, I've done the first but I don't understand that second.
a. Show that $arctan(\frac{1}{2})+arctan(\frac{1}{3})=\frac{\pi}{4}$
b. Hence, or otherwise, find the value of $arctan(2)+arctan(3)$.
The mark scheme has a few methods to solve this, and I don't understand this one in particular.
$**arctan(2)+arctan(3)=\frac{\pi}{2}-arctan(\frac{1}{2})+\frac{\pi}{2}-arctan(\frac{1}{3})**$
$=\pi-(arctan(\frac{1}{2})+arctan(\frac{1}{3}))$
$=\pi-\frac{\pi}{4}=\frac{3\pi}{4}$
I don't understand the line that I asterisked. Where does the $\frac{\pi}{2}$ and $arctan(\frac{1}{2})+arctan(\frac{1}{3})$ come from? Please could someone explain all of this to me?

As $\displaystyle\tan\left(\frac\pi2-z\right)=\cot z,\arctan u+\text{arccot}u=\frac\pi2$
and use Are $\mathrm{arccot}(x)$ and $\arctan(1/x)$ the same function? or this, to show that $\displaystyle\arctan x=\text{arccot}\frac1x$ for $x>0$
See also : Proof of $\arctan{2} = \pi/2 -\arctan{1/2}$