I have learned through calculus that the derivatives and the indefinite integrals of the exponential function are the same (at integer arguments) but was wondering if this holds true for fractional derivatives/integrals, such as $\frac{1}{2}$, or do they turn into something monstrous?
I would test this in Wolfram Alpha but I cannot seem to get the entry correct for a fractional derivative/integral.
Not monstruous, but not very simple. The fractional integrals/dérivatives of the exponential function involves the Incomplete Gamma function : Page 10, section 6, in the paper "The fractionnal derivation" http://www.scribd.com/JJacquelin/documents