I am studying partial differential equations, in which the class notes includes the following statement:
$$x^2 + y^2 + (z-c)^2 = a^2$$
Here z is the dependent variable; x,y are independent variables; and a,c are arbitary constants.
Mathematically, all the variables depend on every other variable, so there shouldn't be any difference between x,y or z. Is this a subjective distinction? Aren't variables objectively all dependent on each other?
It means that $z$ is a function of $x$ and $y$, so the full writing would be
$$x^2+y^2+(z(x,y)-c)^2=a^2$$