For example, I'm trying to prove that for any ring $R$ and any multiplicative subsets $U,V$ of $R$, we have
$$U^{1}R\otimes V^{-1}R \simeq U^{-1}(V^{-1}R)$$
as rings. I found that they're isomorphic as $U^{-1}R$-modules. Is an isomorphism between two $U^{-1}R$-modules or $R$-modules that happen to be rings also an isomorphism as rings?
EDIT: Just to be clear, I don't want a proof to what I'm trying to prove, but to whether isomorphisms of modules translate into isomorphisms of rings in any way.
No, isomorphisms of modules (which happen to be rings) are not necessarily isomorphisms of rings.
For example, let $R = k$ be a field, and consider the two $k$-algebras $A = k[\epsilon]/(\epsilon^2)$ and $B = k\oplus k.$ $A$ and $B$ are isomorphic as $k$-modules (both are $k$-vector spaces of dimension $2$), but the two are not isomorphic as rings ($A$ has nilpotent elements and $B$ does not).
In order to upgrade an isomorphism of modules to an isomorphism of rings/algebras, you need to check what happens to the multiplicative structure under the module isomorphism. Indeed, you might write down a map of modules which is an isomorphism, but is not a ring homomorphism at all! For example, for $A$ and $B$ as above, we have the $k$-module isomorphism \begin{align*} f : A &\to B \\ a + b\epsilon + (\epsilon^2)&\mapsto (a,b). \end{align*} However, this is not a ring homomorphism. On the one hand, we have \begin{align*} f((a + b\epsilon + (\epsilon^2))(c + d\epsilon + (\epsilon^2)) &= f(ac + (ad + bc)\epsilon + (\epsilon^2))\\ &= (ac,ad + bc), \end{align*} but on the other, we have \begin{align*} f(a + b\epsilon + (\epsilon^2))f(c + d\epsilon + (\epsilon^2)) &=(a,b)(c,d)\\ &= (ac,bd). \end{align*}