I'm not sure if this question makes sense or not, but if one assesses the following question:
Are $\neg p \lor q \lor p$ and $p \lor \neg p$ logically equivalent?
How could they be? The question doesn't seem to make sense.
Let's assume a truth table:
Is this what the question is asking? It's a very vague question. I am just wondering if it is asking that given $p$ and $q$, that the values are equivalent based on the values taken from the truth table. Thanks!
Yes, they are equivalent since the truth tables are identical. Another way to see it is that both expressions are disjunctions ("or" statements) which include both p and "not p". One of the other of "p" and "not p" will always be true, so the "or" expression overall will always be true. This is why your truth table is all t's.