Pretty straight forward questions.
I assume that ZFC would be considered a logicist program if its founding axioms were logical and analytic in nature, yet ZFC is often referred to as "extra-logical". Is this the same as saying that it is synthetic a priori and depends on human intuition?
Thanks!
The analytic-synthetic distinction concerns whether a proposition is true by definition (analytic), or false by definition (also analytic), or doesn't have its truth value determined by definition alone (synthetic). We owe this terminology to Immanuel Kant. But the "by definition" concept depends on what you think definitions are, and since his idea we've drawn a distinction between explicit and implicit definitions.
In the 1700s, Kant argued some mathematical truths are synthetic, but of course he didn't have set theory in mind. He would argue, for example, that if you look up definitions of $7$, $5$, addition and equality, you won't encounter $12$ as a concept, and therefore $7+5=12$ is synthetic. You might not find that view persuasive in 2020. If you define $5$ as $1+1+1+1+1$ etc., then all you need to make the inference is the associativity of $+$, so it comes down to whether you can prove that from $+$'s definition. Let's discuss whether you can.
Modern axiomatic systems are regarded as implicit definitions. The Peano axioms implicitly define non-negative integers and their arithmetic, and ensure $+$ associates. What is a set in ZFC? It's the kind of thing its axioms truthfully describe, just as a group element is the kind of thing the axioms of group theory truthfully describe. On that view, ZFC axioms are no more or less synthetic than $7+5=12$. I'll leave it to you to decide whether the "by definition" in the distinction's definition should refer to explicit definitions or allow implicit ones.