Let $a$, $b$ > 0. Show that the area between the curves $y = x^a$ and $y = (1 - x)^b$ for 0 ≤ x ≤ 1 is equal to the area between $y = x^b$ and $y = (1 - x)^a. $
I created this demonstration, and it seems like this should hold true. I understand this can be done by integrating but I can't seem to proceed from there.
Hint
Take intuition from $$\int_0^1 f(x)dx=\int_0^1 f(1-x)dx$$