In the book "The Probabilistic Method", the integral $\int_\lambda^\infty e^{-t^2/2}dt$ is said to be "approximately equal" to $\frac{e^{-\lambda^2/2}}{\lambda}$ for large $\lambda$. I assume what is meant is $\int_\lambda^\infty e^{-t^2/2}dt \sim \frac{e^{-\lambda^2/2}}{\lambda}$, which can be verified using l'hopital, since the ratio of the derivatives is $\frac{\lambda^2}{\lambda^2+1}$, which tends to 1.
However, it is not clear to me how to arrive at the expression $\frac{e^{-\lambda^2/2}}{\lambda}$ from scratch. Is there a method for that?
With $t=\dfrac u\lambda+\lambda$,
$$\int_\lambda^\infty e^{-t^2/2}dt=\int_0^\infty e^{-(u/\lambda+\lambda)^2/2}\frac{du}\lambda=\frac{e^{-\lambda^2/2}}\lambda\int_0^\infty e^{-u^2/2\lambda^2}e^{-u}dt.$$
For large $\lambda$, the second factor decreases faster and
$$\int_0^\infty e^{-u^2/2\lambda^2}e^{-u}du\approx\int_0^\infty e^{-u}du.$$