Do logical operators have meaning when used with more than 2 literals "associatively", e.g.: $(A \land B \land C)$?
I.e., are statements such as $(A \land B \land C)$ meaningful, as opposed to $((A \land B) \land C)$, which is meaningful?
If yes, is it possible to prove De Morgan's for any finite n by induction like so:
- For $n = 2$, base De Morgan's applies: $\neg(A_{1} \lor A_{2}) \Leftrightarrow \neg A_{1} \land \neg A_{2}$.
- Assume that for $ n = k $, $\neg (A_{1}\lor A_{2}\lor \ldots \lor A_{k}) \Leftrightarrow (\neg A_{1}\land \neg A_{2} \land \ldots \land \neg A_{k})$.
- Then for $ n = k + 1 $: $\neg (A_{1}\lor A_{2}\lor \ldots \lor A_{k} \lor A_{k+1}) \Leftrightarrow \neg ((A_{1}\lor A_{2}\lor \ldots \lor A_{k})\lor A_{k+1})\Leftrightarrow \neg (A_{1}\lor A_{2}\lor \ldots \lor A_{k}) \land \neg A_{k+1} \Leftrightarrow \neg A_{1} \land \neg A_{2} \land \ldots \land \neg A_{k} \land \neg A_{k+1}$
- Therefore, $\neg (A_{1}\lor A_{2}\lor \ldots \lor A_{n}) \Leftrightarrow (\neg A_{1}\land \neg A_{2} \land \ldots \land \neg A_{n})$ is true for any finite n.
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Thank you.
Certainly $\land$ and $\lor$ can be used meaningfully in this way. This is because we can prove (e.g. by truth tables, a straightforward exercise) that they are associative, i.e.:
$$A \land (B \land C) \iff (A \land B) \land C \qquad A \lor (B \lor C) \iff (A \lor B) \lor C$$
so that we can argue that it doesn't really matter whether we use parentheses or not. From there on, you have given a proper proof that De Morgan's laws generalise to these expressions.
Do note, however, that this does not apply to every logical operator out there. This question deals with associativity of $\to$; it is shown not to be associative:
$$A \to (B \to C) \not\iff (A \to B) \to C$$