Given $x\rightarrow\infty$, I know that $(1-\frac{2\ln2}{x})^{x-2}-(1-\frac{\ln2}{x})^{2(x-1)}$ goes to zero because \begin{align*} \Big(1-\frac{2\ln2}{x}\Big)^{x-2}-\Big(1-\frac{\ln2}{x}\Big)^{2(x-1)} &\sim\exp\Big(-\frac{2\ln2}{x}\cdot x\Big)-\exp\Big(-\frac{\ln2}{x}\cdot 2x\Big) \\ &=0, \end{align*} where I used $\sim$ to mean asymptotic equivalence. How can I find the specific scaling (i.e., the rate of convergence) of the difference?
From the plots I made, it seems to me that it should be something like $O(\frac{1}{x})$, which can be further verified with Wolfram alpha's Big-O domination calculator -- the result is \begin{align*} \Big(1-\frac{2\ln2}{x}\Big)^{x-2}-\Big(1-\frac{\ln2}{x}\Big)^{2(x-1)} &=\frac{\ln4-\ln^22}{4x}-O\Big(\frac{1}{x^2}\Big) \\ &=O\Big(\frac{1}{x}\Big). \end{align*} I tried using Binomial expansions and Taylor expansions but had trouble simplifying. Is there a simpler way to do this (without having to resort to Laurent series which Wolfram claims)?
Let $$A=\left(1-\frac{2 \log (2)}{x}\right)^{x-2}\implies \log(A)=(x-2)\log\left(1-\frac{2 \log (2)}{x}\right)$$
So, by Taylor $$\log(A)=-2\log (2)-\frac{2 ((\log (2)-2) \log (2))}{x}-\frac{4 \left(\log ^2(2) (2\log (2)-3)\right)}{3 x^2}+O\left(\frac{1}{x^3}\right)$$ $$A=e^{\log(A)}=\frac{1}{4}-\frac{(\log (2)-2) \log (2)}{2 x}+\frac{\log ^2(2) (18+\log (2) (3\log (2)-16))}{6 x^2}+O\left(\frac{1}{x^3}\right)$$
Doing the same with
$$B=\left(1-\frac{\log (2)}{x}\right)^{2 (x-1)}$$ $$B=\frac{1}{4}+\frac{2\log (2)-\log ^2(2)}{4 x}+\frac{\log ^2(2) (18+\log (2) (3\log (2)-16))}{24 x^2}+O\left(\frac{1}{x^3}\right)$$
$$A-B=\frac{(2-\log (2)) \log (2)}{4 x}+\frac{\log ^2(2) \left(18+3 \log ^2(2)-16 \log (2)\right)}{8 x^2}+O\left(\frac{1}{x^3}\right)$$
Using your pocket calculator with $x=100$, the exact result is $0.00231558$ while the truncated expression gives $0.00231476$.