I have 15 base-4 numbers (0-3) representing 0%, 33%, 66%, and 99% which I want to average. Is it a valid statement that if I convert the base-4 numbers to their associated % and find the average, that final average will represent the average-%?
2026-04-01 11:01:53.1775041313
Averaging Base-4 Percentages
21 Views Asked by Bumbble Comm https://math.techqa.club/user/bumbble-comm/detail At
1
If I understand your question correctly, you have a mapping from $(0,1,2,3)$ to $(0\%,33\%,66\%,99\%)$, respectively, and this is a linear mapping. That implies that the mapping preserves averages. For example, if you had instead, three numbers $(1,2,3)$, the average is $2$ which maps to $66\%$ and this is also the average of $(33\%,66\%,99\%)$.