I have a very basic question on wether or not we use the axiom of choice when we prove the very simple fact that the union of open sets of $\mathbb{R}$ (defined as unions of open intervals) is an open set of $\mathbb{R}$.
Say that $(U_i)_{i\in I}$ is a family of open sets of $\mathbb{R}$. So each $U_i$ is of the form $\cup_{j\in J} I_j$ where the set $J$ may depend on $i$, and the family of open intervals $(I_j)_{j\in J}$ may also depend on $i$.
So to be able to write down $\cup_i U_i$ as the union $\cup_{i,j} I_j$ don't we have to choose (a potentially uncountable number of times) a set $J$ and a family $(I_j)_j$ for each $i$ ? Does that mean we have to apply the axiom of choice ?
Your doubt arises because we are only given for $U_i$ that there exists an index set $J$ and intervals $I_j$ such that $U_i=\bigcup_{j\in J}I_j$. But we are not given this information.
However, we can describe the union without invoking choice as $$\bigcup_{i\in I}U_i = \bigcup_{\langle a,b\rangle\in J}\left]a,b\right[ $$ where $$J=\{\,\langle a,b\rangle\in \Bbb R^2\mid \exists i\in I\colon \left]a,b\right[\subseteq U_i\,\}. $$