In the wikipedia article, two examples are given which use/ do not use the axiom of choice. They are:
Given an infinite pair of socks, one needs AC to pick one sock out of each pair.
Given an infinite collection of pairs of shoes, one shoe can be specified without AC by choosing the left one.
Aren't these equivalent examples (just with different objects)? Why can't one just choose the left sock in (i) (so that AC is not needed)?
In both examples you are given an infinite family of sets of size 2, and a choice function picks an element of each family. In the case of the sets of shoes, each set comes with an ordering (left, right), and so we can define a choice function explicitly. In the case of pairs of socks, this is not the case: Of course, given any pair, we can assign an ordering to it so we can select one of the two socks. However, there is no obvious way of uniformly doing this for all pairs at the same time. This means (at least intuitively) that there is no way of defining a choice function. Its existence can only be granted by applying the axiom of choice.
There are several variants of this example. One that may be useful to think about is the following: One can show explicitly that if $A_n$ is a set of reals and $|A_n|=2$ for each $n\in{\mathbb N}$, then $\bigcup_n A_n$ is a (finite or infinite) countable set. However, it is consistent with the axioms of set theory except choice that there is a sequence $(A_n\mid n\in{\mathbb N})$ of sets, each $|A_n|=2$, and yet $\bigcup_n A_n$ is not countable. Although the construction of the model where this happens is technical, the point is that this formalizes the intuition that there is no "explicit" way of choosing a sock from each pair, simultaneously, and that any way of doing so is essentially non-constructive.
For more on the set theoretic versions of these collections of socks (Russell cardinals), see here.