In my textbook (Abbott) the Axiom of Completeness is defined as follows:
Every nonempty set of real numbers that is bounded above has a least upper bound.
The book then asserts that by this axiom, there is no need to discuss the case when a set is bounded below. The argument used is that if $A$ is bounded below, and we consider the set of lower bounds to $A$, the infimum of $A$ is simply the supremum of the set of lower bounds. I'm a bit confused about this, because intuitively, it seems like this argument "approaches" the supremum/infimum from a different side on the number line (increasing towards it vs. decreasing towards it).
This does indeed take proof, but it is true - the idea roughly being that whether you go towards a number from above or from below, you're still going towards the same thing.
So let's prove (most of) it!
The statement we want to show is:
The book tells us to consider the set $$L=\{\mbox{lower bounds of $A$}\}.$$ We know that $L$ has an upper bound - namely, for any $a\in A$ (remember, $A$ is nonempty!) we have $a\ge l$ for all $l\in L$ (why?). So by completeness, we know that $L$ has a least upper bound, call it $g$.
We now claim that $g$ is in fact the greatest lower bound of $A$. To justify this, we need to show two things:
$g$ is in fact a lower bound of $A$.
If $h$ is a lower bound of $A$ then $h\le g$.
I'll do the first bullet, and leave the second for you as an exercise. Suppose $a\in A$; we want to show $g\le a$. Well, if $g>a$ then every lower bound of $A$ has to be $\le a$; hence, $a$ is an upper bound on the set of lower bounds of $A$. But this can't happen - $g$ is the least upper bound on the set of lower bounds of $A$, so ...