Theorem:
If $f$ is a positive function on $(0,\infty)$ such that
(a)$ f(x+1) = xf(x),$
(b) $f(1) = 1$,
(c) $\log f$ is convex,
then $f(x) = \Gamma(x)$.
Proof:
Since $\Gamma$ satisfies (a), (b), and (c), it's enough to prove that $f(x) $ is uniquely determined by (a),(b),(c), for all $x>0.$ By (a), it's enough to do this for $x \in (0,1).$
Put $\varphi = \log f$. Then
$\varphi(x+1)$ = $\varphi(x)$ + logx (0<x<$\infty$),
$\varphi(1)$ = 0, and $\varphi$ is convex. suppose 0 < x < 1, and n is a positive integer.
By ($\varphi(x+1) = \varphi(x) + \log x $ ($0<x<\infty$)), $\varphi(n+1) = \log (n!)$.
Consider the difference quotients of $\varphi$ on the intervals $[n,n+1], [n+1,n+1+x],[n+1,n+2]$. since $\varphi$ is convex
$$\log n \leq \frac{\varphi(n+1+x)-\varphi(n+1)}{x}\leq \log(n+1).$$
I don't understand how the last equation comes from the convexity of $\varphi$.
Any help would be appreciated.
If $\phi$ is convex function and $s<y<z<v$ then $$\frac{\phi (y) -\phi (s) }{y-s}\leq \frac{\phi (z) -\phi (y) }{z-y}\leq \frac{\phi (v) -\phi (z) }{v-z}$$ put in this inequality $s=n, y=n+1 , z= n+1+x, v=n+2$ and yóu obtain it.