Is $s_n$ a Cauchy sequence if we only assume that $|s_{n+1} - s_n|\lt \frac{1}{n}$ for all $n\in \Bbb{N}$
My original question was poorly worded, hopefully this make more sense. I get that it is not always convergent. In the theorem, it says for each $\epsilon \gt 0$ there exists N such that n,m $\gt N$ implies
|$s_n - s_m$| $\lt \epsilon$. My main problem is that I do not understand how to relate n and m to n and n+1.
As stated the given proposition is not correct, since $$ s_n:=\frac1{n^2}, \quad |s_{n+1} - s_n|=\left|\frac{2n +1}{n^2(1+n)^2} \right|<\frac1n,\quad n=1,2,\cdots, $$ and $\left\{s_n\right\}$ is a convergent sequence, thus $\left\{s_n\right\}$ is a Cauchy sequence.