basic question flatness and non-zero divisors: $B/fB$ flat implies $f$ is a non-zero divisor

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Let $A \to B$ be a ring homomorphism of (Noetherian) rings. Let $f \in B$, and suppose that $B/fB$ is flat over $A$. Something I'm reading says then that $f$ is a non-zero divisor. Why?

Edit: as pointed out by Pedro T. in the comments, the statement is not true.