The question itself is nothing but linear algebra:
Let $\{x_1,\cdots,x_n\}$ be n linearly independent vectors (not necessarily orthogonal) in $\mathbb{R}^{2n}$ and $J^2=-1$ is the almost complex structure, we want to show that $\{x_1,\cdots, x_n, Jx_1,\cdots, Jx_{n}\}$ span $\mathbb{R}^{2n}$.
To check that they are linearly independent, we assume:\begin{equation}\begin{aligned} \sum_i a_ix_i+\sum_j b_jJx_j=0 \\ \end{aligned} \end{equation}
Act $J$ on both side, we have:\begin{equation} \sum_i a_i Jx_i-\sum_jb_jx_j=0 \end{equation}
Then I saw somebody concluded right away the following which I can not figure out why: \begin{equation} \sum_i (a_i^2+b_i^2)x_i=0 \end{equation}
Thanks for your help!
But it's not true. That is, not as stated. If you take just any old $x_1,\ldots,x_n$ that is. Consider $\mathbb R^4$, and pick some $x_1$ and for $x_2$ pick $J x_1$, then you only span a 2 dimensional subspace still. So you definitely want $\operatorname{span} \{ x_1,\ldots,x_n \} \cap \operatorname{span} \{ J x_1, \ldots, J x_n \}$ to be trivial, otherwise what you are saying is simply not true. But then this follows by dimension, since $J$ had better be invertible and so it preserves dimensions of subspaces.
The idea is that you need to pick a so-called maximally totally-real linear subspace. If your initial subspace $X$, the span of the $x_1,\ldots,x_n$, has any complex structure, then the span of $X$ and $JX$ is not everything.