Problem : Consider the function $f(x) = x^2\sin(\frac{1}{x})$. A priori this function is defined for $x\neq 0$. Show that setting $f(0) = 0$ turns $f$ into a function that is differentiable everywhere.
I've no idea where to start or how to go about tackling this problem at all.
My current idea is to prove that as $x$ tends to $0$, the limit of the function $= 0$, but after this I do not know how to continue.
I've also tried looking at it with the Taylor's Theorem but I do not know how to start off with this as well.
Thanks for your help.
Hint: For $x \ne 0$, you can simply use the standard rules of computing derivatives. For $x = 0$, use the definition of the derivative i.e. $$ \lim_{a \to 0} \frac{f(a) - f(0)}{a - 0}. $$