I'm trying to see that $J_0(x)$ is indeed a solution for the Bessel equation $x^2y''+xy'+x^2y=0$, so: $$J_0(x)=\sum_{k=0}^\infty \frac{(-1)^kx^{2k}}{(k!)^22^{2k}}$$ Pluging it in the equation and and operating let's me with this instead of $0$: $$\sum_{k=0}^\infty \frac{4k^2(-1)^kx^{2k}}{(k!)^22^{2k}}+\sum_{k=0}^\infty \frac{(-1)^k x^{2k+2}}{(k!)^22^{2k}}$$
The differentiation was done (by computer) term by term, and that's the only think that comes to my mind that may be wrong, but power series can be differentiated term by term, right?
The first sum is really from $k=1$, because the term with $k=0$ is zero. It also simplifies: $$\sum_{k=1}^\infty \frac{4k^2(-1)^kx^{2k}}{(k!)^22^{2k}} = \sum_{k=1}^\infty \frac{(-1)^k x^{2k}}{((k-1)!)^2 2^{2(k-1)}} \tag1$$ Now change the index, writing $m$ instead of $k-1$: $$ \dots = \sum_{m=0}^\infty \frac{(-1)^{m+1} x^{2(m+1)}}{(m!)^2 2^{2m}} = -\sum_{m=0}^\infty \frac{(-1)^{m} x^{2(m+1)}}{(m!)^2 2^{2m}} \tag2$$ Of course, the index of summation is a dummy variable. We can just as well call it $k$ again. Then the sum in (2) is exactly your second sum, with the opposite sign*