I am given a short exact sequence of R-modules $$0\to A\to B\to C\to 0$$ such that it splits. The question is to show that the set of all splittings from $s:C\to B$ is in bijection with $\text{Hom}(C,A)$.
I have shown injection in one direction as follows. Since the sequence is split, we have $B\cong A\oplus C$ and thus $$\text{Hom}(C,B)=\text{Hom}(C,A\oplus C)\cong \text{Hom}(C,A)\oplus \text{Hom}(C,C)$$ and thus any section (which is essentially in $\text{Hom}(C,B)$) gives me a unique element in $\text{Hom}(C,A)$.
I am stuck on the other direction. Any help is appreciated!
Consider $0 \longrightarrow A \stackrel i \longrightarrow B \stackrel q \longrightarrow C \longrightarrow 0$. Let $j$ be a right inverse of $q$, and $S$ be the set of all right inverses of $q$. Note that for each $f$ in $\operatorname{Hom}(C,A)$, $j+if$ is in $S$. I claim that the map $$\begin{align*} \operatorname{Hom}(C,A) & \longrightarrow S, \\ f & \longmapsto j+if \end{align*}$$ is a bijection.
Indeed, the injectivity follows from the fact that $i$ is left-cancellable, and the surjectivity is due to the exactness:
If $k$ is in $S$, then $q(k-j) = \operatorname{id}_C - \operatorname{id}_C = 0$, which means $$ \operatorname{im}(k-j) \subseteq \ker q = \operatorname{im} i, \tag1 $$ and then there exists $f$ in $\operatorname{Hom}(C,A)$ such that $k-j = if$. Explicitly, given $x$ in $C$, by $(1)$ we know that there exists $y$ in $A$ such that $(k-j)(x) = i(y)$, and this $y$ is the unique element of $A$ with that property (since $i$ is injective); so we define $f(x) = y$.