Suppose I want to estimate the head probability p for a biased coin. Usually this is done by assuming the distribution tends to normal using large number of trials and CLT. I am wondering how robust is the CLT approximation. Because confidence interval is an objective statement about the true value of p, would CLT approximation makes the confidence interval calculated this way wrong in some extreme cases? Also, How to find the confidence interval for this simple coin flip example exactly without using CLT?
2026-04-01 22:44:01.1775083441
Binomial confidence intervals and the Central Limit Theorem
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Suppose we have $x = 21$ successes in $n = 50$ trials. Here are a few approaches to getting a 95% CI for success probability $\theta.$
Using binomial tails in quest of an "exact" interval. Without using a normal approximation, the rough idea to get a 95% CI for binomial success probability $\theta$ is to find $\theta_1$ such that $P(X \le x; n, \theta_1) \approx .025$ and $\theta_2$ such that $P(X \le x; n, \theta_2) \approx .975.$ Then the CI is $(\theta_1, \theta_2).$ This idea is discussed in Section 3 of these course notes.
Briefly, an important difficulty is that the discreteness of the binomial distribution prevents getting 'tail probabilities' of exactly .025 for either $\theta_i.$ One solution is to fuss about putting a little more probability in one tail and a little less in the other tail in order to get as close to a 95% CI as possible. Another solution (the 'conservative approach') is to allow tail probabilities smaller than .025 to ensure at least 95% confidence
Below is a rough demonstration (with no fussing) that I programmed in R statistical software. It gives the CI $(.300, .568).$
In R, a refined version of this style of CI is part of the output of the function
binom.test, which includes the CI $(0.282, 0.568).$ From what I can tell, this function uses a conservative approach, hence the slightly smaller left endpoint. [By default, the function tests whether the coin is fair, although other hypotheses may be specified.]Bayesian Posterior Interval. Sometimes Bayesian posterior intervals are used as confidence intervals. Based on a 'noninformative' $\mathsf{Unif}(0,1)$ prior distribution and the binomial likelihood function from $x = 21$ and $n = 50$, one obtains the posterior distribution $\mathsf{Beta}(x + 1, n-x + 1).$ Cutting probability .025 from each tail of this distribution one obtains the interval $(0.293, 0.558).$
Agresti-Coull Interval. The so-called 'Wald' CI, based on $\hat \theta = x/n,$ is of the form $\hat \theta \pm 1.96\sqrt{\hat\theta(1-\hat\theta)/n}.$ You are correct that this kind of interval can give very bad results for small $n,$ especially when $\theta$ is far from $1/2.$ Not only does it use a normal approximation that may not be appropriate for such $n$ and $\theta,$ it also assumes (under the square root sign) that $\hat\theta = s/n$ is the same as $\theta.$ "Bad" means that the true coverage probability of a "95%" CI can be far from $95\%$, often much lower.
However, a considerable improvement is achieved by using $\tilde n = n + 4$ and $\tilde\theta = (x+2)/\tilde n$ to make the CI $\tilde \theta \pm 1.96\sqrt{\tilde\theta(1-\tilde\theta)/\tilde n}.$ This is called the Agresti-Coull interval; for confidence levels other than 95%, slight adjustments are made. You can google 'Agresti interval' for details. The Agresti interval for $x = 21$ and $n = 50$ is $(0.294, 0.558)$.
While the Agresti intervals use a normal approximation, they do not assume that $\tilde \theta$ is the same as $\theta.$
When $n$ is quite small, all of the CIs based on a normal approximation perform badly. However, when $n$ is small it is increasingly difficult to find appropriate binomial quantiles to make an "exact" interval of approximate confidence 95% (or any other desired level).