I'm having difficulty with this old qualifying exam problem. Suppose we have a sequence of independent R.V's $\{X_n\}_{n\in\mathbb{N}}$ satisfying,
$$ \mathbb{P}(X_n = \pm n^2) = \frac{1}{12n^2}, \;\;\;\; \mathbb{P}(X_n = \pm n) = \frac{1}{12}, \;\;\;\; \mathbb{P}(X_n = 0) = 1 - \frac{1}{6} - \frac{1}{6n^2}$$
I managed to show that the Lindeberg condition does not hold. However, the problem states that the sequence $\frac{S_n}{b_n}$ still converges in distribution to a standard normal, where,
$$ S_n = \sum\limits_{k=1}^nX_k, \;\;\; b_n^2 = \frac{n(n+1)(2n+1)}{18} $$
Is there any cheeky way to show this? I tried using characteristic functions, but I feel like this method would be too inefficient on a timed exam.
EDIT: I consulted with the graduate director and he told me that there was a typo in the question. The question was actually taken from Chung's "A Course in Probability Theory" text (Section 7.2, Exercise 10). The correct problem states:
A CLT may well hold with a different sequence of constants $b_n$. Prove that Lindberg's condition is not satisfied. Nonetheless, if we take $b_n^2 = n^3/18$, then $S_n/b_n$ converges in dist. to the standard normal. The point is that abnormally large values may not count! Hint: Truncate out the abnormal value
I believe I've gotten to a solution. Following the hint, define the truncated R.V's, $Y_j = X_jI\{|X_j| \leq j\}$. Then,
$$ \sum\limits_{j=1}^\infty\mathbb{P}(X_j \neq Y_j) = \sum\limits_{j=1}^\infty\mathbb{P}(X_j = \pm j^2) = \sum\limits_{j=1}^\infty\frac{1}{6j^2} < \infty $$
By Borel-Cantelli, $\mathbb{P}(X_j \neq Y_j \;\; i.o.) = 0$, i.e. $\{X_j \neq Y_j\}_{j\in\mathbb{N}}$ can only occur finitely many times. Thus, $S_n^* = \sum\limits_{j=1}^nY_j$ and $S_n = \sum\limits_{j=1}^nX_j$ have the same asymptotic distribution. One can show that the Lindeberg condition applied to $\{Y_j\}_{j\in\mathbb{N}}$ does hold. Thus,
$$ S_n/b_n \sim S_n^*/b_n \xrightarrow{n\rightarrow\infty} N(0,1) $$
where $b_n^2 = \sum\limits_{j=1}^n\mathbb{E}[Y_j^2] = \sum\limits_{j=1}^n\frac{j^2}{6} \sim \frac{n^3}{18}$. The notation $\sim$ is taken to mean "asymptotically equal".
EDIT: To justify why $S_n/b_n$ and $S_n^*/b_n$ have the same asymptotic distribution, I used the following results from Chung's "A Course in Probability Theory".