I am reading through an argument that I found somewhere and I see that it assumes that:
$$\sum\limits_{i=0}^{n}{{n}\choose{i}} = \dfrac{1}{2}\sum\limits_{i=0}^{n+1}{{n+1}\choose{i}}$$
Intuitively, this seems wrong. I'm assuming it is a typo.
Here's my reasoning:
$$\sum\limits_{i=0}^{n+1}{{n+1}\choose{i}} = (n+1)\sum\limits_{i=0}^{n}\frac{1}{n+1-i}{{n}\choose{i}} + {{n+1}\choose{n+1}} = (n+1)\sum\limits_{i=0}^{n}\frac{1}{n+1-i}{{n}\choose{i}} + 1$$
So that:
$$\sum\limits_{i=0}^{n}\frac{n+1}{n+1-i}{{n}\choose{i}} = \sum\limits_{i=0}^{n+1}{{n+1}\choose{i}} - 1$$
How do I finish my argument to show the assumption is incorrect? Is it a typo or is bad reasoning? Or am I incorrect and the result is valid?
Using the recurrence for Pascal's Triangle and the fact that $\binom{n}{k}=0$ when $k\lt0$ or $k\gt n$, we get $$ \begin{align} \sum_{i=0}^{n+1}\binom{n+1}{i} &=\sum_{i=0}^{n+1}\left[\binom{n}{i}+\binom{n}{i-1}\right]\\ &=\sum_{i=0}^{n+1}\binom{n}{i}+\sum_{i=-1}^n\binom{n}{i}\\ &=\sum_{i=0}^n\binom{n}{i}+\sum_{i=0}^n\binom{n}{i}\\ &=2\sum_{i=0}^n\binom{n}{i} \end{align} $$