So I have a statement that goes like this:
$$ ( \lnot A \lor B) \land(\lnot A \lor \lnot B) $$
I think it is equivalent to
$$ \lnot A $$
Am I right or not?
So I have a statement that goes like this:
$$ ( \lnot A \lor B) \land(\lnot A \lor \lnot B) $$
I think it is equivalent to
$$ \lnot A $$
Am I right or not?
On
We have $(¬A∨B)∧(¬A∨¬B)$
Realize that, by using the distributive law that is $p∨(q∧r)≡(p∨q)∧(p∨r)$, $-A∨(B∧¬B)$ is logically equivalent to$(¬A∨B)∧(¬A∨¬B)$. Let's have the simpler equivalent: $¬A∧(B∨¬B)$
Using negation law yields $¬A∧⊤$
Using identity law yields $¬A$
So, yes, you're right: $(¬A∨B)∧(¬A∨¬B)≡¬A$
Although it's a bit overkill for this problem, since there are only two variables, you can easily solve this with a truth table:
As you fill in the last column, you can quickly realize that the truth value of B has no impact on the truth value of the expression $( \lnot A \lor B) \land(\lnot A \lor \lnot B)$.