Trying to prove $((X\land Y\land Z)\lor (X\land Y\land \lnot Z)\lor (X\land \lnot Y\land Z ) \lor (\lnot X\land Y\land Z)) \equiv
((X\land Y)\lor (X\land Z)\lor (Y\land Z))$
and I am a bit stuck.
I have the following:
$\equiv X\land Y\land (Z\lor \lnot Z) + Z\land ((X\land \lnot Y)\lor (\lnot X\land Y))\quad$
Distributive
$\equiv X\land Y\land (1)\lor Z\land((X\land \lnot Y)\lor (\lnot X\land Y))\quad$
Inverse
$\equiv X\land Y + Z\land(X\land \lnot Y\lor \lnot X\land Y)\quad$ Inverse/Identity
I'm not sure what needs to be done with the "$Z\land((X\land\lnot Y)\lor (X\land\lnot Y))\quad$" ?
Any help appreciated
start with $x + y = xy' + x'y + xy$
(proof: $x + y = x1 + 1y = x(y+y') + (x+x')y = xy + xy' + x'y + xy = xy' + x'y + xy$, because $xy + xy = xy$).
So: $xy + xz + yz = xy1 + (x+y)z = xy(z+z') + (x'y + xy' + xy)z = xyz + xyz' + x'yz + xy'z + xyz = xyz + xyz' + x'yz + xy'z.$