I am reading a section on Boolean algebra in a text book and trying to understand a solution to simplifying problem they have presented.the expression
$$(¬p ∧ ¬q ∨ p)$$
is simplified to $$(¬q ∧ p).$$
I have not been able to work out what law was used t o arive at this. Thanks in advance. PS I am very new to Boolean algebra in case you couldn't tell.
Are you sure that the result is what you wrote?
because I am getting this as $$p \lor \lnot q$$
The procedure is very simple:
We have this expression $$\left(\lnot p \land \lnot q\right) \lor p$$ By the distributive law : => You can find about it here: Laws of boolean algebra
We get : $$\left(p \lor \lnot p \right) \land \left(p \lor \lnot q \right)$$ In the same link above we can find that $ p \lor \lnot p = 1$ then: $$1 \land \left(p \lor \lnot q \right)$$ Again from the link we get: $$p \lor \lnot q$$
Good luck!