Let $E \subset [0,1]$.
Define $D = \{(x,x):x \in E \}$.
Let $f= \chi_D$.
a) Are $f_x, f^y$ Borel for all $x,y \in [0,1]$?
b) Is it true that $f$ is Borel iff $E$ is Borel?
c) If we have both $\mu$ and $\nu$ being the Lebesgue measure, is it true that $f$ is $\mu \times \nu $- measurable iff $E$ is Lebesgue measurable?
My thinking:
a)Yes, since $f_x, f^y$ can only be $0$ or $1$.
b) Yes, since $f$ is Borel iff $D$ is Borel.
c) Yes, since $f$ is Lebesgue measurable iff D is.
Could someone let me know if I have the above correct? Thank you!
Thanks!
Your answers are not corrcet.
For fixed $x \in E$ we have $f_x(y)=1$ if $y=x$ and $0$ otherwise.
For fixed $x \notin E$ we have $f_x(y)=0$ for all $y$.
This makes $f_x$ Borel, hence also Lebesgue measurable always. [No condition on $E$].
Similarly, $f^{y}$ is Borel, hence also Lebesgue measurable always.
Now can write down the answers to all parts of the question.