Suppose $f\in L^2 (a,b)$ and $$\int_a^b \left(\frac{f(x+t)-f(x)}{t}\right)^2 dx \leq 1,$$ then we can show $f\in H^1(a,b)$
The proof we did in class was quite long, and we used the following argument:
From strongly bounded, there exists a subsequence $t_k$ such that the difference quotient converges weakly to $g$ in $L^2$. The weak limit $g$ is the distributional derivative of $f$, and the entire sequence of difference quotient actually converges to $g$ weakly from the uniqueness of limits in the sense distribution.
Is this a standard result? where could I find more about this type of result.
This is indeed a standard result. The proof is not too involved: let $g$ denote the weak limit in $L^2$ of the difference quotients with stepsizes $t_k$, i.e. $\frac1{t_k}(f(\cdot + t_k)-f(\cdot))\rightharpoonup g$.
Take a smooth test function $\phi\in C_0^\infty(a,b)$ with compact support. Then for $t_k$ small enough $$ \frac1{t_k}\int_a^b (f(x+t_k)-f(x))\phi(x)dx = \frac1{t_k}\int_a^b f(x) (\phi(x-t_k)-\phi(x))dx . $$ Since $\phi$ is smooth, we can pass to the limit on the right-hand side (dominated convergence) to obtain $$ \frac1{t_k}\int_a^b (f(x+t_k)-f(x))\phi(x)dx \to -\int_a^b f(x)\phi'(x)dx. $$ But the difference quotients of $f$ converge weakly to $g$, so we get the identity $$ \int_a^b g(x)\phi(x)dx = -\int_a^b f(x)\phi'(x)dx$$ for all smooth $\phi$. Hence, $g$ is the weak derivative of $f$, $f'=g\in L^2(a,b)$ and $f\in H^1(a,b)$.