I need some help on this problem. I have to fins the first and second order derivative in sense of distributions of:
$$v(x)=\operatorname{sign}\cos(\pi x)$$
where the function sign is equal to $1$ if $x\ge0$ or to $-1$ if $x<0$.
So I think I have some step from $-1$ to $1$ oscillating like cosine.
I've tried to apply the definition but I have a lot of doubt about it. Could someone help me to well understand this topic? Thank you very much! :).