It is well known that we do not have $L^q(\mathbb{R}^n) \subset L^p(\mathbb{R}^n)$ for $q >p$. But is this relation true, if we assume that we only look at bounded functions $f$. I think it could be right, because I could not find any counterexample for this situation so far. What do you think?
2026-05-14 15:57:36.1778774256
Bounded $L^p$ functions
66 Views Asked by user66906 https://math.techqa.club/user/user66906/detail AtRelated Questions in INTEGRATION
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