If I have a sequence {$a_n$} that has the property of $\lim(a_{n+1}-a_n)=0$, does that make it a Cauchy Sequence. I think it doesn't because $a_n = \sum_{k=1}^n \frac{1}{k}$ is a counter example.
However, by definition, there exists a $M$ such that if $n \geq M$ then $|a_{n+1}-a_n| < \frac{\epsilon}{m-n}$
Hence, we have $|a_m - a_{m-1}|+.....+|a_{n+1}-a_n|<|a_m -a_n| <\epsilon$
This proof doesn't work because I cannot be sure I can find a fixed $M$ which might change according to n.
But I wonder if I have an additional condition that says $a_n$ is bounded, I think then the proof works and that I should be able to find a fixed $M$. However, I don't know how to justify this. Maybe I am wrong. Can someone kindly help me figure out this problem. Thanks
Even if the sequence is bounded, the condition does not imply that the sequence is Cauchy.
Consider the following sequence: $$ 0,1,\frac12,0,\frac14,\frac12,\frac34,1,\frac78,\frac68,\frac58,\frac48,\frac38,\frac28,\frac18,0,\frac1{16},\ldots $$ The sequence goes back and forth between $0$ and $1$ in smaller and smaller steps. So $\lim(a_{n+1}-a_n)=0$, while the sequence oscillates between $0$ and $1$ and so it is not Cauchy.