Let $(B_t)$ be a Brownian motion. Why: $$p\{-x\leq B_t\leq x \mid B_{t_n}=\pm x_n,...,B_{t_1}=\pm x_1\}=p\{-x\leq B_t\leq x\mid B_{t_n}=x_n,...,B_{t_1}=x_1\}\ \ \ ?$$
2026-04-08 23:07:16.1775689636
Brownian motion: Why $p\{-x\leq B_t\leq x \mid B_{t_n}=\pm x_n,...,B_{t_1}=\pm x_1\}=p\{-x\leq B_t\leq x\mid B_{t_n}=x_n,...,B_{t_1}=x_1\}$
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1
Assuming $t > t_n$ you can reduced your relationship to
$$p\{-x\leq B_t\leq x \mid B_{t_n}=\pm x_n\}=p\{-x\leq B_t\leq x\mid B_{t_n}=x_n\}$$
because $B_t$ is Markov.
I'll proceed formally: \begin{eqnarray*} p\{-x\leq B_t\leq x \mid B_{t_n}=\pm x_n\} &=& \frac{p\{-x\leq B_t\leq x \text{ and } B_{t_n}=\pm x_n\}}{p\{B_{t_n}=\pm x_n\}} \\ &=& \frac{2p\{-x\leq B_t\leq x \text{ and } B_{t_n}= x_n\}}{2p\{B_{t_n}= x_n\}} \\ &=& p\{-x\leq B_t\leq x\mid B_{t_n}=x_n\} \\ \end{eqnarray*}