Let $f: E \to F$ be a $\mathcal C^1$-map between locally convex spaces. Is the following correct $$ \mathrm{d}f(x)(h) = \langle f'(x),h\rangle\:\:? $$
2026-03-25 12:44:51.1774442691
$c^1$-differentiability in locally convex spaces
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