Calculate: $$\int_{0}^{2\pi}e^{R{ {\cos t}}}\cos(R\sin t+3t)\mathrm{d}t$$
My try:
$\displaystyle\int_{0}^{2\pi}e^{R{ {\cos t}}}\cos(R\sin t+3t)dt\\ \displaystyle \int_{|z|=R}e^{\mathfrak{R\textrm{z}}}\cos(\mathfrak{I\textrm{z}}+3(-i\log z)dz\\ \displaystyle \int_{|z|=R}e^{\mathfrak{R\textrm{z}}}\mathfrak{R\textrm{e}}^{(\mathfrak{I\textrm{z}}+3(-i\log z))i}dz\\ \displaystyle \int_{|z|=R}e^{\mathfrak{R\textrm{z}}}\mathfrak{R\textrm{e}^{\mathfrak{I\textrm{z}}}}z^{3}dz\\ \displaystyle \int_{|z|=R}e^{\mathfrak{R\textrm{z}}}\mathfrak{R\textrm{e}^{\mathfrak{I\textrm{z}}}R}z^{3}dz$
and there is nothing here that is not holomorphic, therefore according to Cauchy theorem it must be exactly $0$.
The idea is right here but the proof steps could use a little polishing. More specifically, note that the integral is connected to a nicer looking form:
$$\int_{0}^{2\pi}e^{R\cos t}\cos(R\sin t+3t)dt=\Re\int_{0}^{2\pi}e^{R\cos t+iR\sin t+3it}dt=\Re\int_{0}^{2\pi}e^{Re^{i t}}e^{i3t}dt$$
This can be transformed to a contour integral on the unit circle via the substitution $z=e^{it}$, under which we conclude that
$$\int_{0}^{2\pi}e^{Re^{it}}e^{i3t}dt=\frac{1}{3i}\oint_{|z|=1}z^3e^{Rz}dz=0$$
and indeed, the integral presented above is identically zero.