Laplace transformation of the derivative of the product equals?
$$L\left(\frac{d(f_1(y)f_2(y))}{dy}\right) = sf_1(s)f_2(s) - f_1(0)f_2(0) ?$$
I have meant not the convolution of the functions under the derivative operator, rather the derivative of their product. Thank you.
Let $g(y)=f_1(y) f_2(y)$, then we have
where
Added On the other hand, the Laplace of the convolution is
There are not the same.