I want to calculate the integral $$\int_{\ |z| = 2} \frac{1}{(z^2 +1)^n} dz$$ for $n \in \mathbb{N}$
I thought about using the conclusion from Cauchy's formula which says: $$f^{(n)}(z_0) = \frac{n!}{2 \pi i} \int_{\ |z| = r} \frac{1}{(z-z_0)^n} dz$$
but here: $$\int_{\ |z| = 2} \frac{1}{(z^2 +1)^n} dz = \int_{\ |z| = 2} \frac{1}{(z-i)^n(z+i)^n} dz$$ and both $i$ and $-i$ are inside the circle $|z| < 2$ so I am not really sure what to do.
Help would be appreciated
That integral is equal to $0$, because it is equal to$$\int_0^{2\pi}\frac{2ie^{it}}{\bigl((2e^{it})^2+1\bigr)^n}\,\mathrm dt.$$But\begin{align}\int_0^{2\pi}\frac{2ie^{it}}{\bigl((2e^{it})^2+1\bigr)^n}\,\mathrm dt&=\int_0^\pi\frac{2ie^{it}}{\bigl((2e^{it})^2+1\bigr)^n}\,\mathrm dt+\int_{\pi}^{2\pi}\frac{2ie^{it}}{\bigl((2e^{it})^2+1\bigr)^n}\,\mathrm dt\\&=\int_0^\pi\frac{2ie^{it}}{\bigl((2e^{it})^2+1\bigr)^n}\,\mathrm dt+\int_0^\pi\frac{2ie^{i(t+\pi)}}{\bigl((2e^{i(t+\pi)})^2+1\bigr)^n}\,\mathrm dt\\&=\int_0^\pi\frac{2ie^{it}}{\bigl((2e^{it})^2+1\bigr)^n}\,\mathrm dt-\int_0^\pi\frac{2ie^{it}}{\bigl((2e^{it})^2+1\bigr)^n}\,\mathrm dt\\&=0.\end{align}