$\lim\limits_{n\to\infty}{\sum\limits_{k=n}^{5n}{k-1 \choose n-1}(\frac{1}{5})^{n}(\frac{4}{5})^{k-n}}$
It's clear that we can simplify the limit a little bit, after which we get:
$\lim\limits_{n\to\infty}{(\frac{1}{4})^{n}\sum\limits_{k=n}^{5n}{k-1 \choose n-1}(\frac{4}{5})^{k}}$
I could further simplify the expression, but I feel like there's a more elegant solution.
Give me a hint, please
Hint for a probabilistic proof: look at the negative binomial distribution as the sum of independent geometric distributions, and apply the central limit theorem.