I have this limit
$$\lim_{x\to 1}\frac{1-x^2}{\sin \pi x} \tag 1$$
which can be solved, easily, by De l'Hospital's rule (the solution is $2/\pi$). I have considered that $x\to 1$, therefore $t=x-1\to 0$. We have also $t+2=x+1$.
Hence: $$\lim_{x\to 1}\frac{1-x^2}{\sin \pi x} =\lim_{t\to 0}\frac{-t(t+2)}{\sin \pi (t+1)}=\lim_{t\to 0}\frac{\pi (t+1)}{\sin \pi (t+1)}\cdot \frac{-t(t+2)}{\pi (t+1)}\tag 2$$ but with the
$$\lim_{t\to 0}\frac{\pi (t+1)}{\sin \pi (t+1)}\cdot \frac{-t(t+2)}{\pi (t+1)}\equiv 0$$ and I have not found the solution $2/\pi$. Why?
Let $t=x-1$. Then we have
$$\frac{1-x^2}{\sin(\pi x)}=\frac{-t(t+2)}{\sin(\pi (t+1))}=\frac{t(t+2)}{\sin(\pi t)}$$
Now, set $\pi t=y$ to find
$$\lim_{x\to 1}\frac{1-x^2}{\sin(\pi x)}=\lim_{y\to 0}\left(\frac1\pi(y/\pi+2)\frac{y}{\sin(y)}\right)$$
Can you finish?